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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 28.06.2025 19:25

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What role did China play in the signing of the "Beijing Declaration" between Fatah and Hamas? What other information is worth noting for talks among Palestinian factions in Beijing?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

I've never read the book. What did Dorian Grey do that was so immoral and sinful?

There's no rule.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.